Western Governors University (WGU) NURS6800 D116 Advanced Pharmacology for the Advanced Practice Nurse Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is not a treatment option for myasthenia gravis?
• When initiating an ACE inhibitor, which monitoring is most essential to assess safety?
• In asthma management, LABAs are associated with increased risk of asthma-related deaths when used improperly; how is risk minimized?
• ACE inhibitors carry a risk of renal failure in which condition?
• A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
• Which statement best describes the role of an LVAD in patients with advanced heart failure who are not transplant candidates?
• A test reveals the Philadelphia chromosome. Which disease is this chromosome most commonly associated with?
• Which population is most likely to benefit from cardio-renal benefits of SGLT2 inhibitors independent of glycemic status?
• How do VKORC1 and CYP2C9 gene polymorphisms influence warfarin dosing and INR response?
• What is the most common genetic variation in drug response?
• Which diuretic class is generally not used as a first-line agent for chronic hypertension due to excessive diuresis?
• A patient reports that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What action should be taken first?
• Which vaccine should not be administered to an immunocompromised child?
• Which prognosis best describes Stage D heart failure?
• A clonidine patch is associated with similar systemic effects to other routes of administration. What additional consideration is noted?
• During education for a patient starting an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, which statement would be inappropriate?
• What is the shared primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors and ARBs in blood pressure management?
• For asthma management at Step 1, which medication is indicated?
• Which approach is least effective at reducing cumulative anticholinergic burden in older adults?
• Which statement about taking glipizide is concerning to the clinician?
• Which antibiotic class is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy and is commonly recommended as an alternative to doxycycline?
• Which finding would indicate that terazosin has been effective for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
• What is the primary mechanism of opioid analgesics and key safety concerns in chronic noncancer pain management?
• On initiating an ACE inhibitor for the first time, what patient safety instruction is essential?
• When planning care for an advanced heart failure patient, with whom should end-of-life discussions most appropriately occur?
• A patient with Alzheimer's disease is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor. Which side effects would most concern the nurse due to potential cardiovascular risk?
• Stage D heart failure is best described as:
• Which factor most commonly reduces eligibility for heart transplantation in very elderly patients?
• Ceftriaxone belongs to which class of antibiotics?
• A Nurse Practitioner instructs a patient taking bethanechol (Urecholine). Which statement requires intervention?
• When managing long-term PPI therapy, what monitoring strategy is recommended to minimize risks?
• An asthma patient with inhaled corticosteroid, montelukast, and a SABA presents with mild expiratory wheezes after assessment. What should the nurse do next?
• A drug with a very large volume of distribution is given a loading dose to rapidly achieve target plasma concentration. Which formula correctly calculates the loading dose?
• Which strategy best minimizes polypharmacy risk in older adults?
• Which groups are at increased risk for adverse drug events?
• Which antibiotic is generally avoided in pregnancy and why, and what are preferred alternatives?
• Which statement best describes the role of heart transplantation in Stage D heart failure for eligible patients?
• Which statement about extrapyramidal symptoms is true?
• In Stage D heart failure, which therapy is generally not indicated because it can worsen symptoms?
• How do VKORC1 and CYP2C9 gene polymorphisms influence warfarin therapy?
• Which route bypasses hepatic first-pass metabolism, potentially achieving higher bioavailability for certain drugs?
• What is the purpose of a loading dose?
• Statins have been shown to reduce the risk of stroke in which population?
• In atrial fibrillation management, how do DOACs compare to warfarin in monitoring and diet?
• A female patient on ACE inhibitors becomes pregnant. What is the recommended counseling?
• For older adults with anxiety or sleep disorders, which strategy is recommended over regular benzodiazepine use?
• To minimize osteoporosis risk during long-term glucocorticoid therapy, which measure is most appropriate?
• Which beta-blockers have demonstrated mortality benefit in HFrEF and what key parameter should be regularly monitored?
• Which electrolyte abnormality commonly potentiates digoxin toxicity in patients taking digoxin with loop diuretics?
• Which vaccines are routinely recommended for adults and what are key considerations for administration?
• Which antihypertensive category is considered a third-line option for chronic hypertension?
• When prognosis is poor and transplantation is not feasible, what is the primary focus of care discussions with the family?
• What does directly observed therapy (DOT) aim to ensure in tuberculosis treatment?
• Why might codeine be ineffective in poor CYP2D6 metabolizers, and what are the clinical implications for analgesia?
• Memantine is best classified as what type of drug?
• Which best describes a drug agonist?
• Which statement best defines destination therapy in LVAD use?
• What are the key safety monitoring considerations for aminoglycoside antibiotics?
• Which antibiotics are generally avoided in pregnancy due to fetal risk, and what are safer alternatives?
• Regarding laxatives, which statement best reflects their general use?
• When is glargine insulin typically administered?
• Which antidiabetic agent is commonly first-line, and what safety concern must be monitored?
• Which statement indicates understanding about methimazole safety concerns?
• The Philadelphia chromosome results from which translocation?
• Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis and what monitoring is essential?
• A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks about a long-acting beta2-agonist. What should the NP tell them?
• A patient beginning colchicine for gout takes NSAIDs, simvastatin, amoxicillin, and digoxin. What is the appropriate consideration for prescribing?
• What does volume of distribution represent?
• Which antihypertensive class is contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal risk, and what are preferred alternatives?
• A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine for hypertension. What should the nurse teach the patient?
• How often is the influenza vaccine recommended for adults?
• What device is commonly used as a bridge to heart transplantation in patients with advanced heart failure?
• A pregnant patient with hypothyroidism asks about treatment; which point should the nurse emphasize?
• What is the role of SGLT2 inhibitors in heart failure patients and what adverse effects require monitoring?
• During initiation of urate-lowering therapy such as allopurinol, how is colchicine used for prophylaxis?
• Compared with ACE inhibitors, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) is less likely to cause which side effect?
• Among patients with diabetes and hypertension, which antihypertensive class is preferred to slow progression of kidney injury?
• A patient taking bismuth subsalicylate [Pepto-Bismol] has a black tongue on examination. What should the NP do?
• Which statement correctly describes the blood-brain barrier's effect on drug action?
• What is the primary consideration when deciding antidepressant use in pregnancy?
• When calculating pediatric dose, what safeguards ensure safety?
• What is the primary action of statins and when should liver function tests be checked?
• In the evaluation for heart transplantation, which factor most commonly reduces candidacy in older adults?
• In the context of GLP-1 receptor agonists, which symptom is most commonly associated with their initial use?
• What are the first-line antihypertensive agents and their principal mechanisms?
• What are key considerations for antimicrobial stewardship in outpatient settings?
• In renal impairment, what happens to drug clearance and half-life, and what is the typical dosing implication?
• Which potential side effect should the NP be aware of when prescribing cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms?
• Which outcome could result from limited prescriptive authority for APRNs?
• A patient on digoxin and furosemide reports yellow halos around lights. What action should the nurse take first?
• Which antibiotic classes are most associated with QT prolongation and what monitoring should be performed?
• Which statement is true regarding metronidazole and alcohol interaction?
• For hyperlipidemia, a patient is instructed to take high-dose nicotinic acid. Which statement best reflects this therapy?
• Colchicine is used as prophylaxis when initiating urate-lowering therapy to accomplish what?
• What is pharmacovigilance?
• How should levothyroxine be taken relative to meals and mineral supplements to optimize absorption?
• Explain pharmacovigilance and provide an example of how it affects prescribing decisions.
• In obesity, how does pharmacokinetics change for lipophilic versus hydrophilic drugs, and how should dosing be adjusted?
• An adult patient has two office visits with blood pressures of 150/95 mmHg and 148/90 mmHg, and ambulatory reading of 145/92 mmHg. All diagnostic tests are normal. Which treatment is most appropriate to initiate?
• What is the initial dosing schedule for glipizide when starting therapy for type 2 diabetes?
• Which adverse effects are associated with pramipexole?
• Which change would most likely increase the half-life of a drug with hepatic clearance being the primary elimination route?
• What is a safe analgesic choice for elderly patients and what is the recommended daily maximum dose?
• Drug-enzyme interactions are best described as:
• A 55-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease has a recent GFR of 25 mL/min. What CKD stage is this?
• During memantine therapy, a patient shows a slight elevation in creatinine clearance. What is the most appropriate action for the provider to consider?
• What is the drug interaction concern with warfarin and antibiotics like clarithromycin and other macrolides?
• A patient has been prescribed an antacid and cimetidine. Which instruction should the nurse give about administration?
• Which thionamide is preferred for the first trimester in a pregnant patient with hyperthyroidism if therapy is needed?
• In patients with chronic kidney disease, which first-line antihypertensive class is often favored for renal protection?
• Why should benzodiazepines be used with caution in older adults, and what are safer alternatives for anxiety or sleep disorders?
• What is the purpose of monitoring trough levels when administering aminoglycosides?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between volume of distribution and loading dose when aiming for a target plasma concentration?
• A 4½-year-old on long-term systemic glucocorticoids is scheduled for vaccines usually given in the clinic. Which vaccines are appropriate?
• Which antifungal agents are potent CYP3A4 inhibitors and can interact with statins and cause QT prolongation?
• Which vaccines should not be administered to an immunocompromised individual receiving high-dose systemic glucocorticoids?
• In first-order kinetics, which statement is true?
• A patient is prescribed a bulk-forming laxative for occasional constipation. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
• Which statement best explains why genetic differences in drug targets are less numerous than variations in drug-metabolizing enzymes?
• A patient is starting a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer disease. Which statement by a spouse indicates need for further teaching?
• Before finalizing promethazine for an 18-month-old, what should be considered?
• Which of the following is an early indication of lithium toxicity?
• What is a commonly used antibiotic for the treatment of Crohn's disease?
• What are potential risks of long-term proton pump inhibitor use and how should monitoring be influenced?
• Which routes bypass hepatic first-pass metabolism and can improve bioavailability for certain drugs?
• Where should a clonidine transdermal patch be applied?
• For a patient with stable COPD, which type of bronchodilator is preferred?
• Memantine use in Alzheimer disease is appropriate for which stage?
• Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of an orally administered drug that reaches systemic circulation. How does first-pass hepatic metabolism affect oral bioavailability and dosing?
• Why is vaccination evaluation important for immunocompromised patients, and what vaccines should be considered?
• Which adverse effects are commonly associated with cholinesterase inhibitors?
• A patient planning pregnancy asks about nutritional supplements. What is the recommended daily folic acid intake?
• A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. Which statement indicates understanding of the medication's effect?
• Differentiate a full agonist from a partial agonist in terms of maximal effect and receptor activation.
• Explain the rationale for combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment.
• Which statement about end-of-life care in advanced heart failure is most accurate?
• A 25-year-old patient with newly diagnosed Parkinson disease is started on pramipexole. Before beginning therapy, the nurse will ask about which history?
• Memantine is primarily used in Alzheimer's disease to modulate the effects of glutamate and alter calcium influx into neurons. Which statement best describes this mechanism?
• For myasthenia gravis, when should pyridostigmine be given to maximize benefit?
• Which statement about bismuth subsalicylate is true?
• A client being treated for gonorrhea would most likely be prescribed which agent?
• What safety considerations are important when prescribing benzodiazepines for sleep or anxiety in the context of respiratory disease or COPD?
• In an elderly patient with Stage D heart failure, which topic is most appropriate for the nurse to discuss with the family?
• A patient has been taking an oral bisacodyl laxative for several years. The FNP suggests discontinuing the laxative. Which instruction best reflects the plan?
• Noncompetitive antagonists are drugs that:
• In palliative care for dyspnea in end-stage heart failure, which pharmacologic option is commonly used for symptom relief?
• A psychiatric nurse explains that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks with an antidepressant. The nurse understands this is likely due to what?
• Distinguish Type A (augmented) from Type B (bizarre) adverse drug reactions and give an example of each.
• Which statement best describes vaccination in immunocompromised patients?
• Which antidepressants are commonly used in pregnancy and what are major cautions?
• In asthma management, what is the role of inhaled corticosteroids and what is a common misuse?
• Nicotinic acid is used in high doses to treat hyperlipidemia. Which statement about this therapy is accurate?
• A patient with Graves disease who is pregnant asks about medication management; what should the nurse practitioner tell her?
• How do H2 receptor antagonists differ from proton pump inhibitors in terms of onset and duration, and when might each be preferred?
• Which of the following best describes the goal of safer prescribing for older adults as outlined by guidelines?
• A patient with stable COPD receives prescriptions for an inhaled glucocorticoid and an inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist. Which statement indicates understanding of this medication regimen?
• An adult patient on a first-generation antipsychotic develops a shuffling gait and tremor. What course of action is indicated?
• Which device provides long-term mechanical circulatory support and may be used for patients with severe heart failure?
• What is the Beers Criteria primarily used for in prescribing to older adults?
• Which antihypertensive class may mask signs of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients?
• How do NSAIDs affect renal function and GI safety, and which patient factors increase risk?
• In pregnancy, when is the greatest danger to the fetus from maternal hypothyroidism?
• What are key considerations for bisphosphonate therapy in osteoporosis and how should dosing be administered to minimize esophageal irritation?
• Define therapeutic index and explain why a narrow therapeutic index necessitates careful dosing and monitoring.
• Pyridostigmine improves muscle strength by which mechanism?
• What is the mechanism of action of GLP-1 receptor agonists and their benefits in type 2 diabetes?
• Which agents are potent QT prolongers and require monitoring for drug interactions and electrolyte disturbances?
• Why is therapeutic drug monitoring important for drugs with narrow therapeutic indices, and provide an example?
• Explain TPMT pharmacogenomics and why testing is recommended before initiating azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine therapy.
• What is antibiotic de-escalation?
• A patient who takes oral theophylline twice daily for chronic stable asthma develops an infection and will take ciprofloxacin. The NP should:
• In anticoagulation management, which statement is accurate?
• Which statement about grapefruit juice and glipizide is true?
• Why is the Tdap vaccination timing during pregnancy recommended?
• Zero-order kinetics is best described as:
• What is a likely consequence of poor adherence to inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) in asthma management?
• A patient with peptic ulcer disease does not smoke and drinks wine infrequently with meals. Which regimen is appropriate?
• A parent reports the child has fever 103°F the day after MMR vaccination. What should the clinician do?
• A malnourished patient presents with scaling and cracking skin on the arms and face, irritability, anxiety, sleep difficulties, and sore tongue. Teaching about vitamin therapy for this disorder would address which side effects?